by Big Bene » Tuesday February 10th, 2015 4:55am
No disagreement here. I think it can be very well done the way you describe, and would be great fun.
I just don't think it is what the spell description on the card implies. And I stated this only as an answer to the question if the orc can go "through" the barbarian.
Point 1 on Sotiris' list: "Barbarian's figure is removed from the board, the Orc may move and attack Dwarf". So he reasons, because the barbarian is removed from the board, he doesn't occupy a square, and the orc can "use" the square the invisible barbarian theorethically stands on.
There are two ways to take on this problem:
You can think about how the spell would really work in the game-world, i. e. how an ivisible character would really affect the movement of the orc - is he incorporeal or just invisible, can he intentionally step aside to prevent beeing detected, is there enough room on the square...
Or you can think in terms of rules - what is the intended meaning of the spell description, is the figure removed from the board, does the square count as unoccupied for movement rules, do the players know the whereabouts of an invisible character?
When I got Sotiris right, he thinks in terms of rules here. The figure is removed, so the square is unoccupied, so as by the movement rules, the orc can enter it. In terms of game-world logic, the square is of course occupied by the barbarian, invisible or not, and represented by a figure on the gameboard or not. We are talking rules, here.
In this form, the answer is that by the rules as written the figure is not removed, so there is no reason to interprete the square as "unoccupied", and the orc can't go there.
Of course, you can think of ways to remove the figure and still keep track of the charakter's movements. But then you are making house rules (which is a good thing),and it's up to you to prevent inconsistances with the in-game logic, i. e. you have to define if the character which is not represented on the board by a figure still occupies a square or not. Normally, as the spell is called "Invisibility" and not "Aetheral form" or the like, you would rule it is indeed occupied. Either way, by your house-rule, you would also answer Sotiris' original question.